Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2023

SST Social Science Class 10 Answer Key 2023: Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE conducted Class 10 SST Social Science Board Paper on 15th March 2023 (Wednesday). The students come out of the exam centre they must be anxious to know what is the correct answer for questions asked in Social Science Class 10. With the help of solutions discussed here by our faculty, the students can analyse their performance in Social Science Board Exam 2023. If you are looking for Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2023 for the Board Exam, then go through the complete discussion of the correct answers for all questions here. 

CBSE Class 10 SST Social Science Answer Key 2023

Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2023 has been discussed in this article after the conduction of the Social Science Board Exam on 15th March 2023. Class 10th Answer Key SST Social Science 2023 will help the students to analyse how many questions they have attempted correctly. 

CBSE Class 10th Answer Key SST Social Science 2023
Exam Conducting BodyCentral Board of Secondary Education
Exam NameCBSE Class 10 Social Science
CategoryAnswer Key
Exam Date15th March 2023 (Wednesday)
Unofficial Answer Key15th March 2023
Official Websitehttps://www.cbse.nic.in/

Class 10 SST Answer Key 2023

As mentioned in SST Social Science Syllabus 2023, the question paper consists of 6 sections to be completed in a time duration of 3 hours, The total marks for CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam is 80 marks. For each section, the marks distribution is as follows. 

1. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 is MCQs of 1 mark each.

2. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

3. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 60 words

4. Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

5. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each

6. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

Class 10 Social Science Question Paper & Solution 2023

The students can refer to the CBSE Class 10 Social Science (SST) Answer Key which is discussed by our expert faculty after the completion of the Class 10 Social Science Exam.

Paper Code- 32/5/1

Section A

Q1. Which one of the following aspects was the base of the Bretton Woods System?

a) Military system

b) Cultural system

c) Economic system 

d) Historical system

Correct Answer- c) Economic system 

Q2. Which one of the following books was printed first by Gutenberg?

a) Chapbooks

b) Amar Jivan

c) Bible

d) Almanac

Correct Answer- c) Bible

Q3. Who among the following led the peasant movement in Bardoli in 1928?

a) Baba Ramchandra

b) Jawaharlal Nehru

c) Subhash Chandra Bose

d) Vallabhbhai Patel

Correct Answer- d) Vallabhbhai Patel

Q4. Which one of the is not true about the female allegory of France?

a) She was named Marianne

b) She took part in the French Revolution

c) She was a symbol of national unity

d) Her images were marked on coins and stamps

Correct Answer- b) She took part in the French Revolution

Q5. Choose the correctly matched pair

a) Primitive subsistence farming- practised on large patches of food

b) Intensive subsistence farming- single crop production farming

c) Commercial farming- use of higher doses of modern inputs

d) Plantation farming- practised on small patches of food

Correct Answer- c) Commercial farming- use of higher doses of modern inputs

Q6. When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented?

a) 1972

b) 1978

c) 1980

d) 1985

Correct Answer- a) 1972

Q7. Mention the main reason for land degradation in states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha

a) Over-grazing

b) Mining

c) Over irrigation

d) Mineral processing

Correct Answer- d) Mineral processing

Q8. Which one of the following languages was declared as the official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?

a) Tamil

b) Sinhala

c) Hindi

d) English

Correct Answer- b) Sinhala

Q9. Which one of the following options prove that India is an quasi-federal state?

I More powers with Centre

II Residuary subjects with Centre

III Equal subjects with Centre and States

IV Currenct and Railways with Centres

Options:

a) I, III, and IV

b) I, II, and IV

c) II, III, and IV

d) I, II, and III

Correct Answer- b) I, II, and IV

Q10. Which one of the following statements is not true?

a) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion.

b) The Constitution allows us to practice, profess and propagate any religion or not to follow any. 

c) The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities. 

d) As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics. 

Correct Answer- d) As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics. 

Q11. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option as your answer. 

Assertion (A): India has a multiparty system.

Reason (R): It is because of the social and geographical diversities in India

Options: 

a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). 

b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). 

c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. 

d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. 

Correct Answer- a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). 

Q12. Which one of the following is not true about a democratic government?

a) Democratic government is a legitimate government. 

b) Democratic government is a responsive government. 

c) Democratic government is the people's own government. 

d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.

Correct Answer- d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.

Q13. Read the given data in the table and find out the average monthly income of Country A. Choose the correct option. 

Monthly Income of Citizens of Two Countries (in Rupees)
CountriesIIIIIIIVVAverage Income
Country A10500980095001000010500?
Country B600060006000600050000 

Options: 

a) 9500

b) 10000

c) 10500

d) 10600

Correct Answer- d) 10600

Q14. What percentage of the population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region?

a) 40%

b) 80%

c) 59%

d) 70%

Correct Answer- c) 59%

Q15. Select which among the following cannot be purchased through 

Choose the Correct option:

I Full protection from infectious disease

II A pollution-free atmosphere

III High quality education

IV A luxury home

Options: 

a) I and III

b) III and IV

c) I and IV

d) I and II

Correct Answer- d) I and II

Section A (Set 2)

Q1. Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I Napoleonic wars 1800

II The Treaty of Vienna 1815

III Greek Struggle for Independence 1821

IV Slav Nationalism in Ottoman Empire

Correct Answer- b) I, II, III and IV

Q2. Which one of the following aspects was common among the writings of Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?

a) Demanded economic equality for the masses

b) Highlighted the experiences of women

c) Raised awareness about cultural heritage

d) Motivated Indians for their national freedom

Correct Answer-: b) Highlighted the experiences of women

Q3. There were three important developments that greatly shrank the pre-modern world. Identify the incorrect one from the following options:

a) The flow of trade

b) The flow of labour

c) The flow of capital

d) The flow of technology

Correct Answer-: d) The flow of technology

Q4. Who among the following improved steam engine?

a) James Watt

b) Thomas Edison

c) Benjamin Franklin

d) Alexander Fleming

Correct Answer-: a) James Watt

Q5. Which one of the following is an example of Ferrous Metal?

a) Copper

b) Tin

c) Bauxite

d) Nickel

Correct Answer-: a) Copper

Q6. Match column - 1 with column - 2 and choose the correct option: 

Column 1 (Resources)Column 2 (Example)
I Biological1 Coal
II Renewable2 Wildlife
III Non-renewable3 Solar Energy

Correct Answer-: c)

Q7. Which of the following is correctly matched? 

a) Alluvial Soil - Consists of sand and silt  

b) Black Soil - Salt content is high

c) Arid Soil - Diffusion of iron in crystalline 

d) Laterite Soil - Made up of Lava flows 

Correct Answer-: a) Alluvial Soil - Consists of sand and silt

Q8. Which of the following countries has better rank in Human Development Index? 

a) Afghanistan 

b) Myanmar

c) India  

d) Nepal

Correct Answer-: c) India  

Q9. Which one of the following sectors contributes the highest to the GDP of India? 

a) Primary 

b) Secondary 

c) Tertiary 

d) Quaternary 

Correct Answer-: c) Tertiary

Q10. Why did the Indian government liberalize trade regulations in 1991? 

a) Government wanted foreign exchange equivalent to Indian Currency.

b) Government wanted to maintain good relations with Western Countries.

c) Government wanted Indian producers to compete in the World Market.

d) Government wanted to provide socio-economic justice to all. 

Correct Answer-: c) Government wanted Indian producers to compete in the World Market.

Q11. Read the following statements about Human Development and choose the correct option:

(I) It is the composite Index prepared by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). 

(II) Parameters to measure it are Longevity, Literacy and Per Capita Income. 

(III) Countries are ranked according to Developed and Low Developing countries. 

(IV) World Bank also prepares reports of Human Development on the basis of Quality of Life. 

Options : 

a) I and II 

b) II and III 

c) I and III 

d) II and IV

Correct Answer-: a) I and II

Q12. Read the following data and answer the question that follow:

How much is the Net Absence Ratio of Haryana? Choose the appropriate option from the following: 

a) 39 

b) 27 

c) 38 

d) 18 

Correct Answer- a) 39 

Q13. Which one of the following is a developmental goal of the factory workers? 

a) Better wages 

b) Better technology

c) More hours of work

d) More labour work 

Correct Answer- a) Better wages

Q14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? 

a) Primary Sector        - Flower Cultivator 

b) Secondary Sector    - Milk Vendor 

c) Tertiary Sector        - Fisherman 

d) Manufacturing Sector - Gardener

Correct Answer- a) Primary Sector - Flower Cultivator 

Q15.  Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the Correct option : 

(I) majoritarianism is the real spirit of democracy. 

(II) It creates balance and harmony in different groups. 

(III) It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups.

(IV) power sharing is the essence of democracy.

Correct Answer- d) power sharing is the essence of democracy.

Q16. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option : 

Assertion (A) : Sri Lanka adopted 'Tamil' as the official language of the State.

Reason (R) : The Govt. of Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian measures. 

Options : 

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. 

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. 

Correct Answer- d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Q17. Match column — A with column — B and choose the correct option :

Column — A (Subjects)                    Column — B (List) 
(I) Banks 1. Concurrent List 
(II) Agriculture 2. Union List 
(III) Education    3. State List 
(IV) Computer    4. Residuary Subjects 

 Options : 

 I II III IV 

a) 4 3 1 2  

b) 3 4 I 2 

c) 2 3 1 4 

d) 4 2 1 3 

Correct Answer- c) 2 3 1 4

Q18. Identify the administrative level of the Indian Government with the help of the information given in the box and choose the correct option : 

I. Power shared between Central to Local Government. 

2. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them. 

3. It is called a three tier government. 

Options : 

(a) Dictatorial System 

(b) Unitary Federal System 

(c) Decentralized System 

(d) Imperialistic System

Correct Answer- a) Unitary Federal System 

Q19. Which one of the following countries has two-party system?

a) China

b) Russia

c) America

d) India

Correct Answer- c) America

Q20. Which type of government is likely to be more acceptable to the people in the world?

a) Democratic

b) Military

c) Dictatorship

d) Theocratic

Correct Answer- a) Democratic

Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2023

Download Class 10 Social Science Question Paper pdfs for different sets from the below table- 

CBSE Class 10 SST Social Science Paper- 32/2/1

CBSE Class 10 SST Social Science Paper- 32/2/2

CBSE Class 10 SST Social Science Paper- 32/2/3

Related Links
CBSE Class 10 English SyllabusCBSE Class 10 Science Syllabus
CBSE Class 10 Maths SyllabusCBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Paper
CBSE Class 10 Science Sample PaperCBSE Class 10 English Sample Paper
CBSE Class 10 Hindi Sample PaperCBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper
Class 10 SST Answer Key 2023: FAQs

Ans. At Career Power, we will discuss complete SST Social Science Class 10 Answer Key on 15th March 2023.

Ans. The word limit for short answer in SST Exam should not exceed 60 words in each answer

Ans. No, CBSE will not release Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2023.

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