Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2023
SST Social Science Class 10 Answer Key 2023: Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE conducted Class 10 SST Social Science Board Paper on 15th March 2023 (Wednesday). The students come out of the exam centre they must be anxious to know what is the correct answer for questions asked in Social Science Class 10. With the help of solutions discussed here by our faculty, the students can analyse their performance in Social Science Board Exam 2023. If you are looking for Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2023 for the Board Exam, then go through the complete discussion of the correct answers for all questions here.
CBSE Class 10 SST Social Science Answer Key 2023
Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2023 has been discussed in this article after the conduction of the Social Science Board Exam on 15th March 2023. Class 10th Answer Key SST Social Science 2023 will help the students to analyse how many questions they have attempted correctly.
|CBSE Class 10th Answer Key SST Social Science 2023|
|Exam Conducting Body||Central Board of Secondary Education|
|Exam Name||CBSE Class 10 Social Science|
|Exam Date||15th March 2023 (Wednesday)|
|Unofficial Answer Key||15th March 2023|
Class 10 SST Answer Key 2023
As mentioned in SST Social Science Syllabus 2023, the question paper consists of 6 sections to be completed in a time duration of 3 hours, The total marks for CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam is 80 marks. For each section, the marks distribution is as follows.
1. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 is MCQs of 1 mark each.
2. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
3. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
4. Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
5. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each
6. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
Class 10 Social Science Question Paper & Solution 2023
The students can refer to the CBSE Class 10 Social Science (SST) Answer Key which is discussed by our expert faculty after the completion of the Class 10 Social Science Exam.
Paper Code- 32/5/1
Q1. Which one of the following aspects was the base of the Bretton Woods System?
a) Military system
b) Cultural system
c) Economic system
d) Historical system
Correct Answer- c) Economic system
Q2. Which one of the following books was printed first by Gutenberg?
b) Amar Jivan
Correct Answer- c) Bible
Q3. Who among the following led the peasant movement in Bardoli in 1928?
a) Baba Ramchandra
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Subhash Chandra Bose
d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer- d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q4. Which one of the is not true about the female allegory of France?
a) She was named Marianne
b) She took part in the French Revolution
c) She was a symbol of national unity
d) Her images were marked on coins and stamps
Correct Answer- b) She took part in the French Revolution
Q5. Choose the correctly matched pair
a) Primitive subsistence farming- practised on large patches of food
b) Intensive subsistence farming- single crop production farming
c) Commercial farming- use of higher doses of modern inputs
d) Plantation farming- practised on small patches of food
Correct Answer- c) Commercial farming- use of higher doses of modern inputs
Q6. When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented?
Correct Answer- a) 1972
Q7. Mention the main reason for land degradation in states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha
c) Over irrigation
d) Mineral processing
Correct Answer- d) Mineral processing
Q8. Which one of the following languages was declared as the official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?
Correct Answer- b) Sinhala
Q9. Which one of the following options prove that India is an quasi-federal state?
I More powers with Centre
II Residuary subjects with Centre
III Equal subjects with Centre and States
IV Currenct and Railways with Centres
a) I, III, and IV
b) I, II, and IV
c) II, III, and IV
d) I, II, and III
Correct Answer- b) I, II, and IV
Q10. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion.
b) The Constitution allows us to practice, profess and propagate any religion or not to follow any.
c) The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities.
d) As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics.
Correct Answer- d) As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics.
Q11. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option as your answer.
Assertion (A): India has a multiparty system.
Reason (R): It is because of the social and geographical diversities in India
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer- a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q12. Which one of the following is not true about a democratic government?
a) Democratic government is a legitimate government.
b) Democratic government is a responsive government.
c) Democratic government is the people's own government.
d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.
Correct Answer- d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.
Q13. Read the given data in the table and find out the average monthly income of Country A. Choose the correct option.
|Monthly Income of Citizens of Two Countries (in Rupees)|
Correct Answer- d) 10600
Q14. What percentage of the population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region?
Correct Answer- c) 59%
Q15. Select which among the following cannot be purchased through
Choose the Correct option:
I Full protection from infectious disease
II A pollution-free atmosphere
III High quality education
IV A luxury home
a) I and III
b) III and IV
c) I and IV
d) I and II
Correct Answer- d) I and II
Section A (Set 2)
Q1. Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option:
I Napoleonic wars 1800
II The Treaty of Vienna 1815
III Greek Struggle for Independence 1821
IV Slav Nationalism in Ottoman Empire
Correct Answer- b) I, II, III and IV
Q2. Which one of the following aspects was common among the writings of Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?
a) Demanded economic equality for the masses
b) Highlighted the experiences of women
c) Raised awareness about cultural heritage
d) Motivated Indians for their national freedom
Correct Answer-: b) Highlighted the experiences of women
Q3. There were three important developments that greatly shrank the pre-modern world. Identify the incorrect one from the following options:
a) The flow of trade
b) The flow of labour
c) The flow of capital
d) The flow of technology
Correct Answer-: d) The flow of technology
Q4. Who among the following improved steam engine?
a) James Watt
b) Thomas Edison
c) Benjamin Franklin
d) Alexander Fleming
Correct Answer-: a) James Watt
Q5. Which one of the following is an example of Ferrous Metal?
Correct Answer-: a) Copper
Q6. Match column - 1 with column - 2 and choose the correct option:
|Column 1 (Resources)||Column 2 (Example)|
|I Biological||1 Coal|
|II Renewable||2 Wildlife|
|III Non-renewable||3 Solar Energy|
Correct Answer-: c)
Q7. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a) Alluvial Soil - Consists of sand and silt
b) Black Soil - Salt content is high
c) Arid Soil - Diffusion of iron in crystalline
d) Laterite Soil - Made up of Lava flows
Correct Answer-: a) Alluvial Soil - Consists of sand and silt
Q8. Which of the following countries has better rank in Human Development Index?
Correct Answer-: c) India
Q9. Which one of the following sectors contributes the highest to the GDP of India?
Correct Answer-: c) Tertiary
Q10. Why did the Indian government liberalize trade regulations in 1991?
a) Government wanted foreign exchange equivalent to Indian Currency.
b) Government wanted to maintain good relations with Western Countries.
c) Government wanted Indian producers to compete in the World Market.
d) Government wanted to provide socio-economic justice to all.
Correct Answer-: c) Government wanted Indian producers to compete in the World Market.
Q11. Read the following statements about Human Development and choose the correct option:
(I) It is the composite Index prepared by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
(II) Parameters to measure it are Longevity, Literacy and Per Capita Income.
(III) Countries are ranked according to Developed and Low Developing countries.
(IV) World Bank also prepares reports of Human Development on the basis of Quality of Life.
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) II and IV
Correct Answer-: a) I and II
Q12. Read the following data and answer the question that follow:
How much is the Net Absence Ratio of Haryana? Choose the appropriate option from the following:
Correct Answer- a) 39
Q13. Which one of the following is a developmental goal of the factory workers?
a) Better wages
b) Better technology
c) More hours of work
d) More labour work
Correct Answer- a) Better wages
Q14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a) Primary Sector - Flower Cultivator
b) Secondary Sector - Milk Vendor
c) Tertiary Sector - Fisherman
d) Manufacturing Sector - Gardener
Correct Answer- a) Primary Sector - Flower Cultivator
Q15. Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the Correct option :
(I) majoritarianism is the real spirit of democracy.
(II) It creates balance and harmony in different groups.
(III) It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups.
(IV) power sharing is the essence of democracy.
Correct Answer- d) power sharing is the essence of democracy.
Q16. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Sri Lanka adopted 'Tamil' as the official language of the State.
Reason (R) : The Govt. of Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian measures.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer- d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q17. Match column — A with column — B and choose the correct option :
|Column — A (Subjects)||Column — B (List)|
|(I) Banks||1. Concurrent List|
|(II) Agriculture||2. Union List|
|(III) Education||3. State List|
|(IV) Computer||4. Residuary Subjects|
I II III IV
a) 4 3 1 2
b) 3 4 I 2
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 4 2 1 3
Correct Answer- c) 2 3 1 4
Q18. Identify the administrative level of the Indian Government with the help of the information given in the box and choose the correct option :
I. Power shared between Central to Local Government.
2. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
3. It is called a three tier government.
(a) Dictatorial System
(b) Unitary Federal System
(c) Decentralized System
(d) Imperialistic System
Correct Answer- a) Unitary Federal System
Q19. Which one of the following countries has two-party system?
Correct Answer- c) America
Q20. Which type of government is likely to be more acceptable to the people in the world?
Correct Answer- a) Democratic
Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2023
Download Class 10 Social Science Question Paper pdfs for different sets from the below table-
CBSE Class 10 SST Social Science Paper- 32/2/1
CBSE Class 10 SST Social Science Paper- 32/2/2