UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2026 Out (Provisional), GS Paper Answers &a Solutions

The UPSC Prelims Exam for Civil Services has been conducted on 24th May 2026 in two shifts across 83 exam centres in approximately 80 cities all over India. The candidates who appeared in today’s exam can now refer to the provisional UPSC Prelims answer key, which is prepared by our faculty after analysing the questions asked in the exam. 

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2026 Out

The aspirants can calculate their approximate marks in the UPSC Preliminary Exam using the answers provided below as per the marking scheme decided by the commission. UPSC CSE exam consists of 400 marks, scoring 2 marks each for the correct answer in Paper-1 and 2.5 marks in Paper-2. There will be a penalty of 0.66 marks or 1/3rd mark for each incorrect answer.

UPSC Prelims 2026 Answer Key (Provisional)

The official UPSC Provisional Answer Key 2026 will be released on the official UPSC website (upsc.gov.in). These are the unofficial answer keys based on expert analysis after solving UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026.

UPSC General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key 2026

The answers to all 100 questions of General Studies Paper 1 held from 9:30 am to1 11:30 am have been updated here for SET A.

UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 Answers (SET A)
Q1- D	Q26- C	Q51- C	Q76- C
Q2- A	Q27- A	Q52- A	Q77- B
Q3- C	Q28- D	Q53- C	Q78- A
Q4- B	Q29- C	Q54- D	Q79- C
Q5- B	Q30- B	Q55- B	Q80- C
Q6- A	Q31- A	Q56- B	Q81- C
Q7- D	Q32- B	Q57- A	Q82- C
Q8- A	Q33- B	Q58- C	Q83- C
Q9- C	Q34- B	Q59- D	Q84- A
Q10- C	Q35- B	Q60- A	Q85- A
Q11- D	Q36- B	Q61- D	Q86- C
Q12- C	Q37- B	Q62- C	Q87- A
Q13- C	Q38- A	Q63- A	Q88- C
Q14- B	Q39- B	Q64- D	Q89- C
Q15- B	Q40- C	Q65- C	Q90- D
Q16- B	Q41- C	Q66- A	Q91- A
Q17- A	Q42- B	Q67- B	Q92- C
Q18- D	Q43- C	Q68- C	Q93- B
Q19- D	Q44- B	Q69- C	Q94- B
Q20- B	Q45- B	Q70- A	Q95- A
Q21- B	Q46- C	Q71- B	Q96- C
Q22- B	Q47- B	Q72- D	Q97- C
Q23- D	Q48- B	Q73- D	Q98- D
Q24- D	Q49- C	Q74- A	Q99- A
Q25- B	Q50- B	Q75- C	Q100- A

The above answers are provided for SET A for which the question paper pdf is attached below- 

UPSC SET A Question Paper 2026 PDF- Click to Download

UPSC GS Questions with Answers & Explanation

Q1. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi
(b) Kamavardhini
(c) Hanumatodi
(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Q2. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for one of the following reasons?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
(b) Providing support to Indian importers
(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer – (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

Explanation- The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?
(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
(b) Providing support to Indian importers
(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Q3. Consider the following statements :

I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.The above statements have been associated with which of the following ?

Emergence of urban life
Transition to money economy
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- (c) Both 1 and 2

Explaination- “Both statements are lifted almost verbatim from Upinder Singh’s A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India (the most widely cited UGC/NCERT-aligned reference). They describe the twin engines of what historians call the Second Urbanisation of the Indo-Gangetic plain (c. 6th century BCE):

Q4. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4

Answer- (b) 2 and 3

Explanation- “The Nagara style is identified by a curvilinear (rekha-prasada / latina) shikhara rising above the garbhagriha, square sanctum plan, and absence of an elaborate compound wall or gopuram. Of the four temples listed, exactly two qualify:
• Huchimalligudi (Aihole) — early 7th century, Early Chalukyan. Has a square sanctum and a clear rekha-nagara (curvilinear) shikhara. Notable as the first Chalukyan temple to introduce the shukanasa (vestibule projection). Aihole is famously called the “”cradle of Indian temple architecture”” because the Chalukyas experimented with both Nagara and Dravida styles here.
• Dashavatara Temple (Deogarh, Lalitpur district, UP) — early 6th century, late Gupta. NCERT Class 11 (An Introduction to Indian Art) states it bluntly: “”the tall and curvilinear shikhara… makes it clear that this is an early example of a classic nagara style of temple.”” It is the earliest fully structural North Indian temple with a stone shikhara still standing, and is in the panchayatana plan (one main shrine + four corner subsidiary shrines).

Q5. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

(a) Deva (gods)
(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)
(c) Manushya (humans)
(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer- (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

Q6. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

(a) A joyous folk dance
(b) Buddha in a meditative pose
(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer- (a) A joyous folk dance

Q7. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns :

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- A (a) 1 and 2 only 

Q9. Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer- (c) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

Q10. Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer- (b) 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Consider the following assertion :

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3

Answer- (d) 3

Q12. What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha
(b) The Buddha’s First Sermon
(c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
(d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Answer- (d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Q13. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni : Jhelum
3. Parushni : Ravi
4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only

Answer- (c) 3 only

Q14.Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- (b) 1 and 3 only

Q15. Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera
2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer- (b) 2 only

Q16. Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer- (b) 1, 2 and 4

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

Answer- (a) 2 and 3 only

Q18. Consider the following assertion :

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q19. Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana
(b) Gwalior Gharana
(c) Patiala Gharana
(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer- (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Q20. In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda
(c) Ashtadhyayi
(d) Arthashastra

Answer- (b) Atharvaveda

Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:

I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
II. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer- (b) 1 and 2

Q22. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer- (b) 1 and 2

Q23. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer- (d) 3 only

Q24. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer- (d) 3 only

Q25. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information :

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
2. It flows through three countries.
3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following :

(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Indus
(c) Sutlej
(d) Teesta

Answer- (b) Indus

Q26. Which of the following statements with reference to Indian States is/are not correct ?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer- (c) 2 and 3

UPSC CSAT Paper 2 Answer Key 2026

CSAT Paper includes 80 questions, and once the exam is over, our faculty will discuss the UPSC CSAT Paper 2 Answer Key.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026- Click to Download

Important- Only GS Paper 1 marks are counted for the merit list. Paper 2 (CSAT) is purely qualifying in nature. However, if you fail to score at least 33% in CSAT, your GS Paper 1 will not be evaluated at all.

How to Calculate Your Score Using UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2026?

Use this simple formula to estimate your score, check the formula.

For GS Paper 1: Estimated Score = (Correct Answers × 2) – (Wrong Answers × 0.66)

For CSAT: Estimated Score = (Correct Answers × 2.5) – (Wrong Answers × 0.833)

Score Calculation Example (GS Paper 1)

Suppose you attempted 75 questions:

• Correct answers: 60
• Wrong answers: 10
• Unattempted: 5

Estimated Score = (60 × 2) – (10 × 0.66) = 120 – 6.6 = 113.4 marks

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2026- Overview
Organization	Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Name of Exam	Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2026
Vacancies	933
Posts	IAS, IPS, IFS, IRS, etc.
UPSC Prelims Exam Date	24th May 2026
Unofficial Answer Key	24th May 2026
Official Answer Key	After the final result
No. of Questions	Paper 1- 100 Paper 2- 80
Marking Scheme	Paper 1- 2 marks Paper 2- 2.5 marks
Negative Marking	Paper 1- 0.66 Paper 2- 0.83
Nature of Exam	Paper 1- Merit-deciding Paper 2- Qualifying (minimum 33% = 66.67 marks required)

How to Download UPSC Answer Key 2026 [Official]?

Candidates can download the official Answer Key for UPSC prelims exam by following the steps-

1. Browse the official website of UPSC at www.upsc.gov.in.
2. On the homepage, click on “Examination and Answer Keys”.
3. Click on the answer key link against “Civil Service Preliminary Examination Answer Key 2026”
4. The UPSC Civil Service Preliminary Answer Key PDF is open. Download the official answer key and compare your responses to those detailed in the answer key.

Related Links
UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2026	UPSC Exam Pattern 2026 [Prelims + Mains]
UPSC Books List for Prelims Exam	UPSC IAS, IPS, IRS & IFS Salary
UPSC Mains Syllabus 2026	UPSC Calendar 2027