Table of Contents
CBSE Class 10 English Answer Key 2024: The Central Board of Secondary Education has conducted the CBSE Class 10th English Board Exam 2024 on February 26, 2024. The exam has been conducted from 10:30 am to 1:30 pm at different exam centers across the country. As the CBSE Class 10 English Board Exam is successfully conducted students can check the complete CBSE Class 10 English Question Paper with the answer key here. The direct link to download the CBSE Class 10 English Answer Key 2024 for all SETs 1, 2, and 3 has been updated below.
CBSE Class 10 English Answer Key 2024
The CBSE Class 10th English Board Examination 2024 was scheduled to be conducted on February 26, 2024 from 10:30 am. The students appearing for the examination are informed that the Question paper will comprise various sections like reading, writing/grammar, and literature. After the successful conduction of the CBSE Class 10th English Exam students can check the complete Class 10 English answer key here. However students must understand that the answer key may not always be accurate, so cross-checking with the official sources is very important.
Class 10 English Answer Key 2024
The CBSE Class 10th English Exam 2024 comprises of total of 80 marks which includes 3 sections: Section A, Section B, and Section C. The exam will be conducted in pen and paper mode for a total duration of 3 hours and students will be provided an extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper. The table below provides a glimpse of the CBSE Board Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 here.
| CBSE Class 10th English Answer Key 2024 | |
| Exam Conducting Body | Central Board of Secondary Education |
| Name of Examination | CBSE Class 10th Board Examination 2024 |
| Category | Answer Key |
| Status | Released |
| CBSE Class 10th English Exam Date 2024 | February 26, 2024 |
| CBSE Class 10th Answer Key release date | February 26, 2024 |
| Mode of Answer Key Release Date | Online Mode |
| Official Website | https://www.cbse.nic.in/ |
CBSE Class 10 English Answer Key 2024 All SET
SET -1 (2/1/1)
SECTION-A
READING SKILLS
Q1. Read the text given below: 10 Marks
(1) Held every year on 21 May, UNESCO leads the celebration of World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development highlighting not only the richness of the world’s cultures but also the essential role of intercultural dialogue for achieving peace and sustainable development.
(2) A recent international emergency has proved the intrinsic value of the cultural and creative sector at generating social cohesion, educational resource or personal well-being in times of crisis. It has also underscored the sector’s potential to generate economic growth, something which is too often underestimated.
(3) With the adoption in September 2015 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development by the United Nations, and the resolution on Culture and Sustainable Development adopted by the UN General Assembly in December 2015, the message of the World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development is more important than ever. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) can best be achieved by drawing upon the creative potential of the world’s diverse cultures and engaging continuous dialogue to ensure that all members of society benefits from sustainable development.
(4). Bridging the gap between cultures is urgent and peace, stability and development. Cultural diversity is a driving for force of development, not only with respect to economic growth, but also as a means of leading a more fulfilling intellectual, emotional, moral and spiritual life. This is captured in the culture conventions, which provide a solid basis for the promotion of cultural diversity. Cultural diversity is thus an asset that is indispensable for poverty reduction and the achievement of sustainable development.
(5) At the same time, acceptance and recognition of cultural diversity in particular through innovative use of media and Information and Communications Technologies (ICTs) are conducive to dialogue among civilizations and cultures, respect, and mutual understanding.
6) In 2001, UNESCO adopted the Universal Declaration on Cultural Diversity. Next, in December 2002, the UN General Assembly, in its resolution 57/249, declared May 21 to be the World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development, and the Second Committee of the UN General Assembly. unanimously adopted on Culture and the solution to Sustainable Development, affirming culture’s contribution to the three dimensions of sustainable development, acknowledging further the natural and cultural diversity of the world, and recognizing that cultures and civilizations can contribute to, and are crucial enablers of, sustainable development.
(7) The day provides us with an opportunity to deepen our understanding of the values of cultural diversity and to achieve the goals of the UNESCO Convention on the Protection and Promotion of the Diversity of Cultural Expressions adopted on 20 October 2005.
Answer the following questions based on the above passage:
(i) Based on the reading and understanding of the above passage, list 2 points to describe the purpose of UNESCO leading the celebration of World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development.
(a) _________
(b) _________
Answer: (a) To highlight the richness of the world’s cultures and emphasize the essential role of intercultural dialogue in achieving peace and sustainable development.
(b) To underscore the importance of cultural diversity in fostering social cohesion, promoting economic growth, and contributing to personal well-being, especially during times of crisis.
(ii) Select the option that corresponds to the meaning of following sentence from para (2).
The recent international emergency has proved the intrinsic value of the cultural and creative sector at generating social cohesion, educational resource or personal well-being in times of crisis.
(A) the real worth of cultural sector at generating social cohesion during pandemics
(B) the real worth of creative sector at undermining the social cohesion during an international emergency
(C) questioning the real worth of creative sector at generating ( education resource during an international emergency
(D) highlighting the real worth of cultural and creative sector at generating social cohesion and educational resource during an international emergency
Answer: (D) highlighting the real worth of cultural and creative sector at generating social cohesion and educational resource during an international emergency
(iii) Based on your reading of the passage, examine in about 40 words how Sustainable Development Goals can be achieved.
Answer: The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) can be achieved by leveraging the creative potential of diverse cultures and engaging in continuous dialogue. This approach ensures that all members of society benefit from sustainable development, as outlined in the passage.
(iv) What is the tone of the writer in the given line from paragraph (4)? Rationalize your response in about “Cultural diversity is an asset.” About 40 words:
Answer: The tone of the writer in the line “Cultural diversity is an asset” from paragraph (4) appears to be affirmative and assertive. The statement presents cultural diversity as inherently valuable and essential for various aspects of development, conveying a sense of conviction.
(v) The phrase “bridging the gap’ in paragraph (4) refers to
(A) widening the differences
(B) connecting two desperate ideas
(C) supporting the bridging
(D) filling in the space between two connected things
Answer: (D) filling in the space between two connected things
(vi) In sets a-e below, identify two sets of synonyms.
a. richness and poverty
b. intellectual and moral
c. reduction and promotion
d. essential and intrinsic
e. urgent and crucial
Options:
(A) a and c
(B) b and e
(C) d and e
(D) b and d
Answer:
(B) b and e: “intellectual” and “urgent” both imply importance or immediacy.
(D) b and d: “intellectual” and “essential” both convey fundamental significance or necessity.
vii) Complete the sentence appropriately:
The Second Committee of UN General Assembly in 2015 adopted ______
Answer: a resolution on Culture and Sustainable Development.
viii) Complete the following sentence:
______ is urgent and necessary for peace, stability and development.
Answer: Bridging the gap between cultures is urgent and necessary for peace, stability, and development.
2. Read the extract given below:
(1) The National Education Policy 2020 proposes the revision and revamping of all aspects of education, including the educational structure, regulations, and governance, to create a new system which is aligned with the aspirational goals of 21st century students. According to the policy, by 2025, at least 50% of learners through the school and higher education system shall have exposure to skill education, for which a clear action plan with targets and timelines are to be developed.
(2) The policy aims to overcome the social status hierarchy associated with skill education and integration of skill education into mainstream education in all educational institutions in a phased manner. Beginning with skill exposure at early ages in middle and secondary school, quality skill education will be integrated smoothly into school and higher education.
(3) Every child will learn at least one skill and is exposed more. This would lead to emphasizing the dignity to several of labour and importance of various vocations involving Indian arts and artisanship.
(4) The development of skill capacities will go hand-in-hand with the development of ‘academic’ or other capacities. To achieve this objective, secondary schools will have to collaborate with Industrial Training Institutes (ITIS), Polytechnics, Local Industry, etc. Skill labs will also be set up and created in the schools in a Hub and Spoke model, which will allow other schools to use the facility. Higher education institutions will offer skill education either on their own or in partnership with industry and other institutions.
The Global Scenario of Students in Skill Education Sector.
For visually challenged students only: Percentage of students in Skill Education in various countries is a follows:
India 5%
Egypt – 30%
Denmark – 50%
USA – 52%
Germany 75%
South Korea 96%
(i) Based on the reading of the extract, list 2 objectives of NEP 2020.
(ii) Fill in the blank with appropriate option from those given in the brackets, based on the understanding of paragraph (4).
The statement:
“The development of skill capacities will go hand-in-hand with the development of academic or other capacities” is a/an_____ (fact/opinion) because it is a/an______ (subjective judgement/objective detail)
(iii) Select the option that corresponds to the meaning of the statement given below:
“According to the policy, by 2025, at least 50% of learners through the school and higher education system shall have exposure to skill education.”
(A) Maximum 50% learners shall have exposure to technical education
(B) Minimum 50% learners shall have exposure to technical education
(C) Minimum 50% learners shall have exposure to skill education
(D) Maximum 50% learners shall have exposure to skill education.
(vi) Based on the understanding of the passage, complete the following statement appropriately:
The benefit of the hub and spoke model will be_____________
(v) Complete the following analogy correctly with a word / phrase from paragraph
Racism: Condemn:: Respect:
(vi) As per the Global Scenario which country has the maximum percentage of students in Skill Education and what can be the possible reason?
Set-2/2/1
Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
GRAMMAR
3. Complete any ten of the following twelve tasks, as directed: 10×1=10
(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given portion of a letter:
Therefore, I request you to please consider this request of _________________ (construct) a park in our society so that each and every person can benefit and we can enjoy a healthy environment amidst the concrete jungle.
Answer: constructing
(ii) Read the given sentence from an article on Yoga. Identify the error and supply the correction in the sentence:
Yoga should help lower blood pressure, cholesterol, and blood sugar, all of which are not good for your heart and blood vessels.
Use the given format for your response.
Answer: Error – are
Correction -Is
(iii) Manthan and Sonalika had a conversation about Sonalika’s job interview.
Report Manthan’s question.
How are you preparing for the interview?
Answer:
(iv) Read the dialogue between Meher and her mother, regarding Meher’s dance classes.
Mother: Are you enjoying your dance classes?
Meher: Oh Yes! I am loving it. It is so refreshing to attend them after a long day.
Select the correct option to complete the reporting of the above dialogue.
Meher’s mother asked her In response, Meher exclaimed and said that she was loving it. She added that it was very refreshing to attend them after a long day.
(A) whether the dance classes were being enjoyed by her
(B) whether she is enjoying her dance classes
(C) whether she was enjoying her dance classes
(D) whether the dance classes are being enjoyed by her
Answer:(A) whether the dance classes were being enjoyed by her
(v) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option, to complete the line of a circular issued by an organization, to its stakeholders.
In order to enable the stakeholders to ____________________ (access/assess/accent) all the applicable circulars at one place, the provisions of the circulars issued till January 6, 2024, are incorporated in this master circular.
Answer: access
(vi) Identify the error and supply correction for the given sentence from a company’s orientation programme:
A founder’s goal, during the first phase, is to learn how to obtain feedback on low prospective and real customers are experience the product.
Use the given format for your response.
Error
Correction
Answer: Error – are
Correction- will
(vii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for a line from a Research Report: In many low and middle income countries, health coverage has improved dramatically in the last two decades, but health outcomes may not
Class 10 English Answer Key 2024 SET 3 (2/2/3)
1. Read the following text:
(1) Fossil fuels (oil, coal, and natural gas) are our most traditional sources for power generation. The energy that’s produced from any source other than fossil fuels is termed as alternative energy. Between the two sources, using alternative energy has a lower environmental impact.
(2) We now know that alternative energy sources are the sources we use to supplement or even replace traditional energy sources used for power generation. You could almost say the same thing about renewable energy sources. But there is one subtle difference between the two. All renewable energy sources fall under the category of alternative energy sources, but it doesn’t work the other way around.
(3) That’s because renewable energy sources are derived from naturally replenished sources or processes of Earth, such as the sun, wind, and water. We refer to these resources as renewable or sustainable since, unlike fossil fuels, this naturally occurring continual renewal makes them inexhaustible. However, alternative energy sources are exhaustible, and therefore not renewable. That’s the difference!
(4) The equipment necessary to harness energy from alternative sources used to be so expensive that it wasn’t practical for consumer use. However, thanks to increased demand, more experienced energy developers, competitive supply chains, improved renewable technologies, and enhanced energy efficiency capabilities, that’s no longer the case
(5) When it comes to energy efficiency, the leader of the renewable energy pack is wind energy. Behind wind comes geothermal energy. hydropower, nuclear energy, and then solar power. Wind power serves both individuals and entire communities. It is versatile, and can be produced from small-scale windmills or wind turbines on residential properties. It can also be produced from large-scale offshore wind farms in the ocean.
(6) We generate geothermal power by tapping into underground reservoirs of hot water and steam. Geothermal electricity can directly heat and cool buildings. Generated from the energy of moving water, hydroelectricity (also known as hydropower) is produced when water behind a dam causes turbine blades to move as it flows through an intake. The turbine blades then rotate a generator to produce electricity that is sent to power homes.
(7) Nuclear energy is created in the form of heat through the fission process of atoms. The initial fission process creates energy and triggers a chain reaction that repeats the process and generates more energy. In nuclear power plants, the heat that fission produces creates steam. The steam then rotates a turbine, which leads to the production of electricity.
(8) Solar power most commonly refers to the use of solar cells to create energy. On a small scale, you may see a few solar panels on a house roof used to produce energy for just that one home. On a larger scale, you may see a solar farm used as a power plant to produce electricity for its consumers.
Answer the following questions, based on the above passage:
(i) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between renewable energy sources and alternate energy sources?
(A) Alternative energy sources are more expensive than renewable energy sources.
(B) Renewable energy sources are inexhaustible whereas alternate energy sources could be exhaustible.
(C) Alternative energy sources are as renewable as renewable energy sources.
(D) Renewable energy sources are exhaustible but alternative energy sources are inexhaustible.
Answer (B) Renewable energy sources are inexhaustible whereas alternative energy sources could be exhaustible.
(ii) What is the tone of the writer in the given lines from para (4) ? Rationalise your response in about 40 words.
“However, thanks to increased demand, more experienced energy developers, competitive supply chains, improved renewable technologies, and enhanced energy efficiency capabilities, that’s no longer the case”.
Answer: The tone of the writer in these lines from paragraph (4) is optimistic and informative. The writer acknowledges advancements in renewable energy technologies and the factors contributing to their decreased cost, indicating a positive outlook on the progress in the field.
(iii) Complete the sentence appropriately:
In the past, alternative energy sources were not used much by the consumers because_____
Answer: In the past, alternative energy sources were not used much by consumers because they were often prohibitively expensive and lacked the efficiency and accessibility that they have now achieved due to advancements in technology and increased demand.
(iv) The passage includes some words that are opposites of each other. From the sets (a) to (e) below, identify two sets of antonyms:
(a) generate and produce
(b) exhaustible and inexhaustible
(c) subtle and versatile
(d) power and energy
(e) sustainable and exhaustible
Answer: (b) and (e)
(v) Who is the leader of renewable energy pack and why?
Answer: The leader of the renewable energy pack mentioned in the passage is wind energy. Wind energy is considered the leader because it is versatile, can be harnessed on various scales (from small residential turbines to large offshore wind farms), and has shown significant advancements in efficiency and accessibility in recent years. Additionally, wind energy has a relatively low environmental impact compared to other renewable sources like solar or hydroelectric power.
(vi) Based on the reading of the passage, examine, in about 40 words, the difference between geothermal electricity and hydroelectricity.
Answer: Geothermal electricity is generated by tapping into underground reservoirs of hot water and steam, utilizing Earth’s internal heat. In contrast, hydroelectricity is produced from the energy of moving water behind dams, utilizing the kinetic energy of flowing water to turn turbines and generate electricity.
(vii) What is the message conveyed by the passage?
(A) Only those energy sources should be used which are renewable.
(B) Wind energy is a renewable as well as inexhaustible source of energy.
(C) There are plenty of renewable energy sources that can be used to replace traditional energy sources.
(D) Alternative energy sources are the emerging energy trends and are still evolving.
Answer: (C) There are plenty of renewable energy sources that can be used to replace traditional energy sources.
(viii) State whether the following statement is True or False with reference to the given extract.
Hydroelectricity as a renewable energy source is used for residential as well as commercial purposes.
Answer: False. Hydroelectricity is primarily used for commercial purposes rather than residential ones.
2. Read the passage given below:
(1) Mango (Mangifera indica) is Asia’s most popular fruit, and it has gained popularity around the world. It has long been a component of culture and religion as a useful and tasty fruit. In addition to taste, it has many good qualities thus making it to be called as “King of Fruits”. Major mango-growing states in India include Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Bihar, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu. Andhra Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh are the leading states in mango production.
(2) Mango is grown in an area of 5.58 million hectares of area in the world. India is the largest producer of mangoes with 46.02 and 45.88 percent of the total world area and production, respectively. However, India being the major shareholder in terms of mango production, exports only 0.52% of ite total production indicating the huge gap in exporting of mangoes. Peru exports about 46%, Thailand 24%. Mexico 18% and Brazil 11% of their total mango production. These countries are the bigger challenges for Indian mango exports. Hence, efforts are needed to evolve cheap transportation mechanism, increase the trade agreements with major importing countries and enhance the productivity.
(3) The top importing country is United States of America, however India exports only two percent of its total exports to the USA. The USA, European countries, the UK, Malaysia and Russia can be the other hotspots where India can target to export the mangoes. The critical issue for exporting to the USA is transportation cost (due to sea route distance) and limited shelf life of mango, while for Europe transportation costs as well as competition by African countries are the major hurdles. The following chart shows the major export destinations of Indian mangoes in 2019-20:
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above:
(i) Complete the following analogy appropriately, based on your understanding of Para (1):
We can say that for becoming the king of jungle, Lion has to be the strongest, bravest and the fiercest. Similarly, Mango is known as the king of fruits because_______
Answer: because of its exceptional taste, cultural significance, and numerous positive qualities. Just as a lion must possess strength, bravery, and fierceness to become the king of the jungle, mango’s reputation as the king of fruits is attributed to its delicious flavor, versatility, and widespread popularity across Asia and the world.
(ii) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option from those given in brackets, based on your understanding of Para (2):
The statement that, India is the largest producer of Mangoes with 45.88 percent of the total world production can be attributed to Indian orchardists, is a/an ____ (fact/opinion) because it is a/an _____ (subjective judgement/objective detail)
Answer: The statement that India is the largest producer of mangoes with 45.88 percent of the total world production can be attributed to Indian orchardists, is a fact because it is an objective detail.
(iii) Justify the following in about 40 words:
India being the major shareholder in terms of mango production, exports only 0.52% of its total production.
Answer: India’s low export percentage (0.52%) despite its significant share in mango production reflects domestic consumption prioritization or logistical challenges. This indicates a focus on satisfying local demand rather than maximizing international trade, potentially due to factors like perishability or market constraints.
(iv) Based on the table, which three countries were at par with each other in terms of mango import from India in 2019-20?
(v) The top mango importing country is the U.S.A., however, India exports only two percent of its total exports to the U.S.A. State any one inference that can be drawn from this.
Answer: One inference that can be drawn from this is that there may be significant barriers or challenges hindering India’s mango exports to the USA, such as high transportation costs or stringent import regulations.
(vi) In the given sentence taken from para-2, select the option that correctly replaces the underlined word, with its most likely antonym. These countries are the bigger challenges for Indian mango exports.
(A) enigmas
(C) provocations
(B) solutions
(D) disputes
Answer (B) Solutions
(vii) Why is India described as the largest producer of mangoes in the world? (Answer in about 40 words.)
Answer: India is described as the largest producer of mangoes in the world due to its extensive cultivation area, comprising 46.02% of the global mango-growing area. Additionally, India’s favorable climate, diverse varieties, and agricultural expertise contribute to its dominance in mango production.
(viii) Which of the following is the main takeaway from the study mentioned in the passage?
(A) India needs to produce more mangoes so that more can be exported.
(B) The UAE imported most mangoes from India in 2019-20.
(C) India is the largest producer of mangoes and by putting in more efforts, has the potential to be the largest exporter too.
(D) More study is needed to find ways to increase the export of mangoes from India
Answer: (C) India is the largest producer of mangoes and by putting in more efforts, has the potential to be the largest exporter too.
Section B (Grammar)
3. Complete any ten of the following twelve tasks, as directed:
(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given portion of a letter:
We hope that you continue to work with the same zeal and keep _______ (surprise) us with such remarkable performances. We thank you and wish you good luck for your upcoming projects. Regards.
Answer: Surprising
(ii) Read the given sentence from a medical journal. Identify the error and supply the correction in the sentence:
A flu vaccine’s most common side effects are soreness, redness and swelling at the injection site. These ought begin six to twelve hours after vaccination and can last upto two days.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction
Answer: Error: ought
Correction: ought to
(iii) Tanu and Amit had a conversation about the execution of Tanu’s travel plan.
Report Amit’s question.
Will you be going with your family?
Answer: Amit asked Tanu if she would be going with her family.
(iv) Read the dialogue between Karan and his friend, Parvaiz regarding Karan’s winter vacation plans:
Karan: How is your winter vacation plan shaping up?
Parvaiz: Alas! There are no plans. We have extra classes during our winter vacation.
Select the correct option to complete the reporting of the above dialogue.
Karan asked Parvaiz how his winter vacation plan was shaping up. Parvaiz sighed and said there were no plans. He further added that ____
(A) they had extra classes during our winter vacation
(B) he has extra classes during their winter vacations
(C) they had extra classes during their winter vacation
(D) they have extra classes during their winter vacation
Answer:
The correct option to complete the reporting of the dialogue is:
(C) they had extra classes during their winter vacation
Karan asked Parvaiz how his winter vacation plan was shaping up. Parvaiz sighed and said there were no plans. He further added that they had extra classes during their winter vacation.
(v) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option, to complete the line from the policy document of an insurance company:
It is our endeavour to settle your maturity claim on or before the due date. The Servicing Branch _____ (likely/usually/occasionally) sends maturity claim intimations two months in advance.
Answer: Likely
(vi) Identify the error and supply correction for the given part of the note appearing on an educational website.
Please Note: An early and active communication is required as late notification may result in a delay redressal of your request.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction
Answer:
Error: delay redressal
Correction: delayed redressal
(vii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for a line from a Research Report on Water Conservation. Excess pumping of groundwater leads to decrease in groundwater levels but if continues, it can exhaust the resource.
Option No. Error Correction A leads lead B continues continued C and can also D should
(viii) Complete the given narrative by filling in the blank, with the correct option:
Finally, she went to the best doctor in town. The doctor spent months on her until she was finally cured.
(A) treats
(B) treated
(C) to treating
(D) treating
Answer: (B) treated
(ix) Report the dialogue between two friends, Madhur and Priyanka, by completing the sentence:
Madhur: Do you know the importance of water for our body?
Priyanka: Yes, indeed! Water is essential for digestion and regulates body temperature.
Madhur asked Priyanka if she knew about the importance of water for their body. Priyanka answered in the affirmative and explained that ________________
Answer: water is essential for digestion and regulates body temperature.
(x) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the part of the “All Rights Reserved” note given in a textbook.
No part of this publication may be reproduced, transcribed, transmitted, stored or translated into any language. Any person in relation to this publication may be liable to criminal prosecution and civil claims for damages.
(A) who will be doing any unauthorized act
(B) who is doing any unauthorized act
(C) who does any unauthorized act
(D) who may do any unauthorized act
Answer: (C) who does any unauthorized act
(xi) Complete the slogan, by filling in the blank with the correct option: There’s No place Lake Earth To Live and Work. So Let’s Better Place.
(A) Making It
(C) Make It
(B) Creates It
(D) Create It
Answer: (D) Create It
(xii) Identify the error and supply correction for the following sentence taken from a copyright’s document.
The information contained herein is subject to change without notice. Reproducing, adaptation or translation without prior written permission is prohibited.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction
Answer:
Error: Reproducing, adaptation
Correction: Reproduction, adaptation
CBSE Class 10 English Answer Key 2024 PDF Download
Students appearing for the CBSE Class 10th English exam can get an overview of the exam score and the overall performance in the Class 10 English examination. As the exam is successfully conducted, students who are looking for the Class 10 English Answer Key 2024 for the CBSE Exam, can check the below link. The official exam conducting authorities will not release any answer key for the CBSE Class 10 English Question Paper 2024, but our subject expert’s faculty will release the specially designed answer key for the questions that will be asked in the CBSE Class 10th English Exam. The CBSE Class 10 English Answer Key 2024 PDF can easily be downloaded from the direct link that will be shared here.
CBSE Class 10 English Question Paper 2024 PDF Download
On February 26, 2024, CBSE has conducted the Class 10th English Exam 2024. The CBSE Board Question Papers are valuable resources as after the successful conduction of the exam, these question papers help the students to evaluate their performance in the exams. They also give an overview of papers to students preparing to appear in the class 10th exams next year of the types. In order to download the CBSE Class 10 English Question Paper 2024 PDF, the direct link has been updated below:
| CBSE Class 10 English Question Paper 2024 PDF | |
| Class 10 English Exam Paper 2024 SET | Question Paper Link |
| SET 1 | Class 10 English SET 1 Question Paper 2024 |
| SET 2 | Class 10 English SET 2 Question Paper 2024 |
| SET 3 | Class 10 English SET 3 Question Paper 2024 |
CBSE Class 10 English Paper Analysis 2024
Most of the students who appeared for the CBSE Class 10 English Exam today i.e., February 26, 2024 found the paper a bit easy and well-structured. Students have mentioned that all questions were based on the syllabus and followed the same format as the latest CBSE class 10th English sample paper 2024.
Kaneez Fatima, a student of Lucknow Public School, South City said, “The paper was too easy. It went smoothly but it was lengthy. The passage was not too much competency-based, it was all factual stuff.”
Tarun Tiwari, a student of LPS Sector – D said, “The paper was standard but a bit time taking as all the questions were of logical reasoning specially of RTCs which required definitely basic knowledge about each topic. Writing section even was not very difficult.”
Some of the general views of the students have been shared below:
- The overall Difficulty Level of the CBSE Class 10th English Question paper 2024 was Moderate to Easy.
- According to the students Level of Unseen Passage Questions was A bit tricky.
- The level of Grammar and Writing Questions was Moderate, writing part was time-consuming.
- The Level of Textbook-Based Questions was Easy, and some questions were repeated from previous years.
- When students were asked whether the Paper was Lengthy? They replied that Yes, the paper was lengthy but manageable.
Class 10 English Exam Analysis 2024
All the students who appeared in the Class 10 English Exam 2024 for SET 1, 2, 3, 4 can check the live Class 10 English Exam Analysis 2024 by Sankalp Bharat. Watch the video.
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