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CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024: The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has conducted the Class 12th Geography exam 2024 today i.e., February 29, 2024. The exam is being conducted from 10:30 am to 01:30 pm at various examination centers across the country. As the exam is successfully conducted all the CBSE Class 12th Arts students who appeared for the Geography exam can be able to download the complete CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key from the article below. However students must understand that the answer key may not always be accurate, so cross-checking with the official sources is very important.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024
The CBSE Class 12th Geography Board Examination 2024 has been conducted on February 29, 2024. Students will be allotted a time duration of 3 hours to complete the exam whereas an extra 15 minutes will be given for reading the question paper. The CBSE Class 12th Geography Question Paper 2024 covers a range of topics including physical, human, and practical geography. It covered a mix of theoretical and application-based questions. The CBSE Class 12th Geography examination 2024 comprises a total of 100 marks out of which 80 marks will be for the Class 12th Geography theory exam while the rest 20 marks will be for the internal assessment.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024 | |||
Sections | Types of Questions | No. of Questions | Marks Allotted |
Section-A | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) | 17 | 1 x 17 = 17 |
Section-B | Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) | 2 | 3 x 2 = 6 |
Section-C | Short Answer Type Questions | 4 | 3 x 4 = 12 |
Section-D | Long Answer Type Questions | 5 | 5 x 5 = 25 |
Section-E | Map-Based Questions | 2 | 5 x 2 =10 |
CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024
Students who are appearing for the CBSE Class 12th Board Geography exam 2024 must have a clear understanding of the paper’s pattern to properly check their answers. All the CBSE Class 12th students have been provided with a good amount of internal choices in the Geography question paper. For more details regarding the CBSE Class 12th Geography Question Paper go through the complete article below.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 | |
Exam Conducting Body | Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) |
Name of the Examination | CBSE Class 12th Board Examination 2024 |
Category | Answer Key |
Status | Released |
CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Date 2024 | February 29, 2024 |
CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 release date | February 29, 2024 |
Mode of Answer Key Availability | Online Mode |
Official Website | https://www.cbse.nic.in/ |
CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 All Set
We here provided all the SET 1, 2, 3, 4 Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 for students to help them analyze the exam paper.
CBSE Class 12th Geography Answer Key 2024 For Set 1
SECTION-A (Set 1)
(Question Number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Questions.)
1. ‘Neeru-Meeru’ watershed management programme is associated with which of the following states?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
2. Which of the following is a means of mass awareness regarding ‘water conservation’?
(A) Writing letters to the people.
(B) Telephonic conversation
(C) Through T.V. and Print Media
(D) Personal contact with people
3. Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’?
(A) Per capita water availability assurance
(B) Rain-water harvesting
(C) Conservation of water resources
(D) Providing sufficient water for agriculture
4. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : “Free international trade can prove to be detrimental to the under-developed countries.”
Reason (R): Under-developed countries are not at par to compete with developed countries.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
5. Which of the following fact, about jute cultivation in India, is true?
(A) West Bengal is the leading producer of jute.
(B) Jute is cash crop for Punjab and Haryana.
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other leading jute producing states.
(D) India produces about 30% of the jute production of the world.
6. Read the following information carefully and identify the correct option for the crop :
Grown in Kharif season.
Mainly grown in semi-arid area in India.
Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producer states.
Option:
(A) Cotton
(C) Jute
(B) Tea
7. Which one of the following states in India is the leading producer of manganese?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
8. Which one of the following is the largest coalfields in India?
(A) Jharia
(B) Raniganj
(C) Neyveli
(D) Bokaro
9. Which of the following waterways and their stretches are correctly matched?
National Waterways | Stretch |
(A) National Waterways No. 1 (B) National Waterways No. 2 (C) National Waterways No. 3 (D) National Waterways No. 4 |
Godavari – Krishna Sadiya – Dhubri Allahabad – Haldia Kottapuram – Kollam |
10. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:
Column-I (Railway Zone) | Column-II (Headquarters) |
(a) Northern (b) South Central (c) Southern (d) East Central |
(i) Hajipur (ii) Chennai (iii) New Delhi (iv) Secunderabad |
Options:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
11. Which of the following metro-cities is not linked with the ‘Golden Quadrilateral’?
(A) Mumbai
(C) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(D) Delhi
Answer: (C) Hyderabad
12 Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “The gateways of the International trade are the porta and harbours.”
Reason (R): Only heavy cargos are transported through ports and harbours in the world.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Answer. (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
13. Which one of the following is an example of oil port?
(A) Abadan
(B) Manchester
(C) Kochchi
(D) Dever
Answer. (A) Abadan
14. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “Waterway is an important mode of transport both for passengers and cargo traffic in
India.”
Reason (R): “It is fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.”
Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (RO) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
Answer. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Read the given passage and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17:
Characteristics of High Human Development
High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.
Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.
15. Which one of the following is an important priority of ‘high human development index’ countries ? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Education and healthcare
(B) Healthcare and territorial security
(C) Education and industrial development.
(D) Economic development and per capita income
16. Which one of the followings differentiates the higher human development countries from others? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Higher gross domestic production
(B) Higher investment in social sector
(C) Higher industrialization
(D) Higher per capita income
17. How many countries are under ‘high human development index’ category? Choose the correct option.
(A) 51
(B) 52
(C) 53
(D) 54
CBSE Class 12th Geography Answer Key 2024 For Set 2
SECTION-A
(Q. Nos. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Questions.)
1. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “Free international trade can prove to be detrimental to the under-developed countries.”
Reason (R): Under-developed countries are not at par to compete with developed countries.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
2. Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’?
(A) Per capita water availability assurance
(B) Rain-water harvesting
(C) Conservation of water resources
(D) Providing sufficient water for agriculture
3. Which of the following is a means of mass awareness regarding ‘water conservation’?
(A) Writing letters to the people.
(B) Telephonic conversation
(C) Through T.V. and Print Media
(D) Personal contact with people
4. ‘Neeru-Meeru’ watershed management programme is associated with which of the following states?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
5. Read the following statements carefully regarding rainwater harvesting and choose the correct option.
i. Rainwater harvesting helps to capture and store rainwater.
ii. Groundwater table is declining due to overuse.
iii. Rainwater harvesting increases water availability for use.
iv. Check dams help in recharging groundwater
Options:
(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
(D) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
6. The largest concentration of sugarcane cultivation is found in which of the following states?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar
7. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “The gateways of the International trade are the ports and harbours.”
Reason (R): Only heavy cargos are transported through ports and harbours in the world.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
8. Which one of the following oil refineries is located in Bihar?
(A) Bina
(B) Haldia
(C) Naharkatiya
(D) Barauni
9. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:
(a) Northern
(b) South Central
(c) Southern
(d) East Central
Column-I | Column-II |
Railway Zone | Headquarters |
(a) Northern
(b) South Central (c) Southern (d) East Central |
(i) Hajipur
(ii) Chennai (iii) New Delhi (iv) Secunderabad |
Options:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
10. Which of the following waterways and their stretches are correctly matched?
National Waterways | Stretch |
(A) National Waterways No. 1 (B) National Waterways No. 2 (C) National Waterways No. 3 (D) National Waterways No. 4 |
Godavari – Krishna Sadiya – Dhubri Allahabad – Haldia Kottapuram – Kollam |
11. Which one of the following cities is the lastmost station of east-west corridor?
(A) Imphal
(B) Silchar
(C) Guwahati
(D) Tejpur
12. Which one of the following states in India is the leading producer of manganese?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
13. A seaport handling bulk and general cargo in large volumes belongs to which of the following categories of seaports?
(A) Industrial port
(B) Comprehensive port
(C) Oil port
(D) Naval port
14. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “Waterway is an important mode of transport both for passengers and cargo traffic in India.”
Reason (R): “It is fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.”
Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
Characteristics of High Human Development
High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.
Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.
15. Which one of the followings differentiates the higher human development countries from others? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Higher gross domestic production
(B) Higher investment in social sector
(C) Higher industrialization
(D) Higher per capita income
16. How many countries are under ‘high human development index’ category? Choose the correct option.
(A) 51
(B) 52
(C) 53
(D) 54
17. Which one of the following is an important priority of high human development index’ countries? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Education and healthcare
(B) Healthcare and territorial security
(C) Education and industrial development.
(D) Economic development and per capita income
SECTION-B
(Q. Nos. 18 and 19 are Source Based Questions.)
18. Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow
(18.1) Identify the given inland waterway and write its name.
(18.2) Mention its two tributaries joining from the East.
(18.3) Write the names of terminal ports of the given waterways.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 18.
18. Explain the importance of inland waterways as the means of transportation in the world.
19. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region This region lies between 32° 11′ N and 32° 41′ N latitudes and 76° 22′ E and 76° 53′ E longitudes. Spread over an area of about 1,818 sq km, the region mostly lies between 1,500 m to 3,700 m above the mean sea level. This region popularly known as the homeland of Gaddis is surrounded by lofty mountains on all sides. It has Pir Panjal in the north and Dhaula Dhar in the South. In the east, the extension of Dhula Dhar converges with Pir Panjal near Rohtang Pass. The river Ravi and its tributaries-the Budhil and the Tundahen, drain this territory, and carve out deep gorges. These rivers divide the region into four physiographic divisions called Holí, Khani, Kugti and Tundah areas. Bharmaur experiences freezing weather conditions and snowfall in winter. Its mean monthly temperature in January remains 4 °C and in July 26 °C.
(19.1) Describe the location of Bharmaur region.
(19.2) Why does this region experience harsh climatic conditions? Give one reason.
(19.3) Why is this region economically backward? Explain any one reason.
SECTION-C
(Q. Nos. 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.)
20. (a) Explain the main objectives of ‘Smart Cities Mission’ in India.
OR
(b) Explain the main features of the dispersed settlements in India.
21. Explain the main features of retail trading in the world.
22. (a) “Nature and human are inseparable elements in all geographical studies.” Examine the statement
OR
(b) Examine the main aspects of environmental determinism.
23. Examine the changing pattern and composition of India’s imports.
SECTION-D
(Q. Nos. 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.)
24. Examine any five factors affecting the density of population in world.
25. (a) “The distribution of urban population over India has wide variations.” Examine the statement.
OR
(b) “If development is not engendered, it is endangered.” Examine the statement in the context of inclusive development.
26. Analyse the important characteristics of large-scale manufacturing industries in the world.
27. (a) Describe any two sources of air pollution in India and suggest any three measures to overcome the air pollution.
OR
(b) Describe any two sources of water pollution in India. Suggest any three measures to overcome the water pollution.
28. (a) Examine the main characteristics of Co-operative Farming in the world.
OR
(b) Examine the main characteristics of Dairy Farming in the world.
SECTION-E
(Q. Nos. 29 and 30 are Map Based Questions.)
29. On the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been shown as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:
A. A major ses port
B. An international airport
C. An important shipping canal
D An area of subsistence gathering
E. An area of nomadic herding
F. A terminal station of trans-continental railway.
G. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 29. Answer ans five questions.
29.1 Name the major seaport located on the west coast of Canada.
29.2 Name the international airport of Chile.
29.3 Name the canal connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sen.
29.4 Name an important area of subsistence gathering in Africa
29.5 Name an area of nomadic herding in Asia.
29.6 Name the eastern terminal station of Trans-Canadian Railway.
29.7 Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming in Australia.
30. Locate and label any five of the following geographical features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India:
30.1 A state leading in the production of coffee.
30.2 An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.
30.3 An important coal mining area in West Bengal.
30.4 A major seaport along the coast of Goa.
30.5 A state with highest population density.
30.6 An international airport in Gujarat.
30.7 An iron-oze mining area in Chhattisgarh.
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 30. Answer any five questions.
30.1 Name the state leading in the production of coffee.
30.2 Name the place where oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.
30.3 Name one coal mining ares in West Bengal.
30.4 Name the seaport along the coast of Goa.
30.5 Which state hus the highest population density?
30.6 Name the international airport located in Karnataka
30.7 Name e iconore mining eres in Chhattisgarh
CBSE Class 12th Geography Answer Key 2024 For Set 3
SECTION-A
(Q. Nos. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Questions.)
1. Which of the following is a means of mass awareness regarding ‘water conservation’?
(A) Writing letters to the people. (B) Telephonic conversation
(C) Through T.V. and Print Media (D) Personal contact with people
2. Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’?
(A) Per capita water availability assurance
(B) Rain-water harvesting
(C) Conservation of water resources
(D) Providing sufficient water for agriculture
3. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “Free international trade can prove to be detrimental to the under-developed countries.”
Reason (R): Under-developed countries are not at par to compete with developed countries.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
4. ‘Neeru-Meeru’ watershed management programme is associated with which of the following states?
(A) Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
5. The Central Government sponsored ‘Haryali’ Watershed Development Project was executed by which one of the followings?
(A) District Magistrates with the help of other officers.
(B) Block Development officers with reputed people’s participation.
(C) Circle Officers with guidance of school principals.
(D) Gram Panchayats with people’s participation
6. Read the following information carefully and identify the correct optuon for the crop :
Grown in Kharif season.
Mainly grown in semi-arid area in India.
Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producer states.
Option:
(A) Cotton
(C) Jute
(B) Tea
(D) Sugarcane
8. In which one of the following states Badampahar iron-ore mines located? are
(A) Telangana
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Odisha
(D) Chhattisgarh
9. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:
Column-I | Column-II |
Railway Zone | Headquarters |
(a) Northern (b) South Central (c) Southern (d) East Central |
(i) Hajipur (ii) Chennai (iii) New Delhi (iv) Secunderabad |
10. ‘Atal Tunnel’ was built by which one of the following?
(A) National Highway Authority of India
(B) Border Road Organisation
(C) Himachal Pradesh Highway Authority
(D) Punjab Highway Authority
11. Which of the following metro-cities is not linked with the ‘Golden Quadrilateral’?
(A) Mumbai
(C) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(D) Delhi
CBSE Class 12th Geography Question Paper 2024 PDF Download
The Central Board of Secondary Education has conducted the Class 12th Geography Board Exam 2024 on February 29, 2024. The CBSE Board Question Papers are valuable resources as after the successful conduction of the exam, these question papers help the students to evaluate their performance in the exams. These question papers will help the students preparing to appear in the class 12th exams next year to provide an overview of the question paper, and the types of questions asked in the examination. The direct link to download the CBSE Class 12th Chemistry Question Paper 2024 PDF has been shared here.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024 PDF | |
Class 12 Geography Exam Paper 2024 SET | Question Paper Link |
SET 1 | Class 12 Geography SET 1 Question Paper 2024 |
SET 2 | Class 12 Geography SET 2 Question Paper 2024 |
SET 3 | Class 12 Geography SET 3 Question Paper 2024 |
Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 PDF Download
The candidates who appeared in the CBSE Class 12th Board Geography Exam 2024 today i.e., February 29, 2024 can now download the Geography question paper PDF here in the article. The official exam conducting authorities will not release any answer key for the CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024, but our subject expert’s faculty has released the specially designed answer key for the questions that will be asked in the CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam 2024. Students will be able to check the complete CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024 PDF with the answer key from the direct link that will be soon shared in the article below.
CBSE Class 12th Geography Exam Paper Analysis 2024
Most of the Experts and educators have mentioned that the CBSE Class 12th Geography paper was balanced and ranged from easy to moderate. Most of the questions were direct and based on NCERT. Students disclosed that the question paper pattern was on the line of the official CBSE sample paper, and nothing was asked out of the prescribed syllabus of geography. Students who appeared for the Geography exam today i.e., February 29, 2024 mentioned that all questions were based on the syllabus and followed the same format as the latest CBSE class 12th Geography sample paper.
- As per the students, the CBSE Class 12th geography question paper difficulty level was easy to moderate.
- Direct questions were easy to answer, while competency-based questions posed an average challenge.
- Students found the geography paper lengthy but manageable.
- Everything was based on the prescribed syllabus and NCERT.
- The MCQ section was easy and scoring.
- The Map-based questions were comparatively difficult.
- The language of the questions was direct, which made it easy for the students to understand the demands of the questions.